Marathon Petroleum Corporation (NYSE: MPC), a U.S. based oil refining, marketing, and pipeline transport company, has a refining capacity in excess of 1 million barrels of oil per day. MPC needs crude oil every day and it may purchase it in one of two ways:
On 1/9/2012, the crude oil spot price is $98/bbl and the interest rate 6%.
Suppose MPC entered into a long-term contract (forward contract) on January 9, 2012 with Exxon to buy 1,000,000 barrels for delivery on September 1, 2012. The delivery price agreed for the contract is $100 a barrel. This means MPC will obtain 1,000,000 bbls on September 1, 2012 at a total cost of $100 million as agreed. What if the spot market price on 9/1/2012 is only $60 a barrel? Then MPC would have overpaid $40 million for the 9/1/2012 delivery compared to the spot price. What if the spot price is $120 a barrel instead? Then MPC would have paid $20 million less. (Of course, the supplier faces exactly the opposite situation.)
In other words, if MPC buys crude oil on the spot market, the cost of crude oil is uncertain, but the forward contract secures predictability of the cost of crude oil for MPC.
MPC, the buyer of the forward contract, is called to have a "long" position, and the supplier, the seller, a "short" position.
The main questions to think about in this lesson are:
After completing this lesson, you will be able to:
Forward Contract: An agreement to BUY or SELL an asset at a specified time (maturity or settlement date) in the future for a specified price.
The buyer of a forward contract agrees to pay a specified amount at a specified date in the future in exchange for a specified asset (called the "underlying"), such as currency, commodity, interest payment, bond, etc.
On Jan 9, 2012, MPC agreed to take a delivery of 1 million barrels of crude oil on Sept. 1, 2012 at $100 a barrel from Exxon, regardless of the prevailing spot price on 9/1/2012.
The exchange of the "underlying" and the "price" at the settlement time, T, can be viewed in the following figures:
Note: Click on the dots below to navigate through the content within the slide sorter.
The forward price of the MPC forward contract (Example 2.1.) was F0 = $100 /bbl.
The following steps create a situation with the delivery of gold and cash flow identical to a long gold forward contract – creates synthetically a gold forward long contract. The spot price of gold today, S0, is $1,000/oz. The risk-free interest rate, R0, is 6% and the gold lease rate, I0, is 2%/year, payable at the end of the lease period.
This is equivalent to a long gold forward contract with zero cash flow at the beginning and a payment for the underlying at the settlement:
→ t = 0: CF0 = +$1,000 (loan) - $1,000 (pay for Gold) = 0
No gold in possession – b/c the gold bought was lent→ t = 1: Pay back the loan and collect the gold rental fee
CF1 = - 1,000 · (1 + 6%) + 1,000 · 2% = -$1,040
Get back the gold: + Gold(1oz)→ The net amount to pay is:
FSYNTHETIC = (spot price) + (interest cost) – (gold lease fee)
= S0 · (1 + R0 - I0) = 1,000 · (1 + 6% - 2%) = $1,040
Arbitrage-free condition will require the gold forward price to be equal to the synthetic gold forward cost:
F0 = FSYNTHETIC (= $1,040)
What if a dealer quotes a gold forward price of F0 = $1,100 (higher than $1,040)?
Click on Example 2.3. Solution with gold forward price of F0= $1,100 (higher than $$1,040) to view the solution.
Example 2.3. Solution with gold forward price of F0 = $1,100 (higher than $1,040):
At t = 0: Short forward + Long synthetic forward
At t = 1 (one year later):
- Short forward at F0 = $1,100
- Borrow S0 = $1,000 at 6% +$1,000
- Buy gold spot at S0 = $1,000 -$1,000
- Lease the gold at 2%
→ Net CF0 = zero; no gold in possession
- Pay back the loan and accrued interest = - $1,000 · 1.06 = - 1,060
- Receive accrued fee on gold lease: 1,000 · 2% = $20
- Close the short forward position:
Deliver gold for F0 = $1,100 +$1,100- Net Profit +$60
This is a risk-free profit with no initial investment - pure arbitrage profit!
As long as F0 > FSYNTHETIC, this strategy will yield an arbitrage profit, driving F0 down to FSYNTHETIC
What if the dealer quotes a gold forward price of F0 = $1,020?
Click on Example 2.3. Solution with gold forward price of F0= $1,020 to view the solution.
Example 2.3. Solution with gold forward price of F0 = $1,020:
At t = 0: Long forward + short synthetic forward
- Long forward at F0 = $1,020
→ Net CF0 = zero; no gold in possession- Borrow gold at 2%
- Sell gold spot at $1,000 +$1,000
- Deposit $1,000 at 6% -$1,000
At t = 1 (one year later):
- Close the long forward position:
Accept delivery of gold for F0 = $1,020 ($1,020)- Return borrowed gold with accrued fee: ($20)
- Get back the deposit with interest, S0 · (1+6%) +$1,060
- Net Profit +$20
This is a risk-free profit with no initial investment - pure arbitrage profit!
As long as F0 < FSYNTHETIC, this strategy will yield an arbitrage profit, driving F0 upward to FSYNTHETIC
Wrap-up: The arbitrage-free condition establishes the forward price as F0 = (spot price) + (interest cost) - (gold lease fee), i.e.
The forward price is such that NPV of an at-market Forward contract = 0
The IBM stock is currently traded at $180. A stock dealer offers a 6-month forward (or futures) on IBM at $185.32.
Assume the risk-free rate, r0, is 6% and there will be no dividend payment within six months. How would you calculate the NPV of a long forward contract?
Click on Example 2.4. Solution to view the solution.
Under the long forward, the buyer will pay $185.32 and receive one share of IBM stock in 6 months. Therefore,
(NPV of the forward) = -PV($185.32) + PV (1 share of IBM stock in 6 months).
- PV($185.32) = $185.32/(1 + 6%)∧0.5 = 180
- One share of IBM stock in 6 month is financially equivalent to one share of IBM stock now because there is no dividend payment, which is worth $180 today, i.e., the PV(IBM share at maturity) = $180.
Therefore NPV = - 180 + 180 = 0
NPV of Forward Contracts: The forward price is such that NPV of an equilibrium-priced forward contract = 0
Default risk in Forwards
Variables | Meanings |
---|---|
T: | delivery time |
r: | risk-free interest rate for maturity T |
S0: | Spot price today, t = 0 |
F(0,T): | forward price today (t = 0) with expiration at t = T |
Vt1 (0,T): | Value at t = t1of an existing LONG forward contract expiring at t = T established at t = 0 < t1 (is this less than t1) |
Recall: FowardPrice = SpotPrice + {FV(cost) - FV(benefits)} for deferred transaction.
FV(cost) is the interest cost of borrowing (assuming no storage cost), FV(benefit) = zero (assuming no income from the underlying).
Therefore:
How would you check if the forward price of $100 is arbitrage-free? [Hint: Devise an equivalent forward contract on 1/9/2012 using the crude oil spot market and the financial market for borrowing or lending. To simplify the analysis, assume the storage cost of crude oil is zero.]
This exercise provides you with an opportunity to review some concepts of forward contracts on an underlying asset with no income, no storage cost. Please attempt to solve the question on your own and then submit your work to the Lesson 2: Exercise 1 Drop Box to retrieve the solution to the question. The solution is a locked file and can only be accessed once you have submitted your work to the Lesson 2: Exercise 1 Drop Box.
Review your answers in comparison to the solution. If you have wrong answers to the question, you should revisit the forward contracts concepts presented. And, if you still have difficulties understanding the material and why you made mistakes, please contact me.
Consider the MPC's forward contract mentioned in the Overview of this lesson – MPC is long on a crude oil forward contract with contract priced at F(1/9/2012,9/1/2012) = $100/bbl since 1/9/2012. What would be the value of the MPC's long forward position on March 1, 2012 if the spot price on March 1st is $105 and the risk-free rate is 4%?
Click on Example 2.5. Solution to view the solution.
The market value of MPC's long position as of 3/1/2012 can be realized by taking a short position on 3/1/2012 leaving the net underlying = zero at the delivery time.
The forward price on March 1st for 9/1/2012 delivery is the FV of S3/1/2012, $105. Since it is 0.5 year between 3/1/2012 and 9/1/2012, we get:
- F(3/1/2012,9/1/2012) = 105 · EXP(4% · 0.5) = 107.12
- By selling on 3/1/2012 the forward contract (delivery 9/1/2012) at 107.12, on Sept 1. 2012 MPC will receive 107.12 from closing the short position and pay 100 from closing the long position. There will be no net delivery of the underlying as the long and short positions cancel out each other. Thus the market value of the MPC's long position, V3/1/2012(1/9/2012,9/1/2012), is the PV of $7.12, the difference between the forward price on March 1 and the forward price of the existing contract:
- V3/1/2012(1/9/2012,9/1/2012) = PV[F(3/1/2012,9/1/2012) - F(3/1/2012,9/1/2012)]
= (107.12 - 100) · EXP(-4% · 0.5) = $6.98- The market value of the forward contract made on 1/9/2012 at $100 is worth $6.98 on 3/1/2012.
Note: If you need further assistance in solving this example, view the Value of an Existing Forward Contract video by clicking on the Instructional Videos link in the left menu.
By formalizing this, the market value at t = t1 of a long forward position created earlier can be found through one of two approaches:
Click on Approach 1 Solution to view the solution.
Approach 1 Solution: Take an offseting short forward
Approach 1: Short forward at t = t1 as in the example above
- Short forward at t = t1: F(t1,T) = St1er(T-t1)
- CFs at maturity (T)
- Close the existing long forward: pay F(0,T) & receive the underlying
- Close the short forward: deliver the underlying & receive F(t1,T)
- The PV of the net proceeds:
- Vt1(0,T) = PV{F(t1,T) - F(0,T)}
= {(St1er(T-t1)) - F(0,T)}e-r(T-t1)
= St1 - F(0,T)e-r(T-t1)
Vt1(0,T) = SpotPrice(t1) - PV (the price of the existing forward) for an underlying asset with no income and no storage cost
Click on Approach 2 Solution to view the solution.
Approach 2 Solution: Short sell the underlying
Approach 2: Short sell the underlying at t = t1
- Borrow the underlying
- Sell it at the spot price of St1
- CFs at maturity (T)
- Close the long forward: pay F(0,T) & receive the underlying
- Close the short selling: return the underlying
- The two CFs are at two different points in time:
- +St1 at t=t1
- -F(0,T) at t=T
- Thus the PV of the two CFs at t = t1 is:
Vt1(0,T) = St1 - PV{F(0,T)} = St1 - F(0,T)e-r(T-t1)
Vt1(0,T) = SpotPrice(t1) - PV (the price of the existing forward)
How do you determine the value of MPC’s long position for the September 1st delivery on any date before September 1st, 2012?
This exercise provides you with an opportunity to review some concepts of forward contracts on an underlying asset with no income, no storage cost. Please attempt to solve the question on your own and then submit your work to the Lesson 2: Exercise 2 Drop Box to retrieve the solution to the question. The solution is a locked file and can only be accessed once you have submitted your work to the Lesson 2: Exercise 2 Drop Box.
Review your answers in comparison to the solution. If you have wrong answers to the question, you should revisit the forward contracts concepts presented. And, if you still have difficulties understanding the material and why you made mistakes, please contact me.
An investor owns an asset valued at € 125.72. The investor plans to sell it in nine months to raise money, but he is concerned about the price risk. He took a short forward position on this asset with the delivery in 9 months. The risk-free interest rate is 5.625%.
This exercise provides you with an opportunity to review some concepts of forward contracts on an underlying asset with no income, no storage cost. Please attempt to solve the question on your own and then check the answers in the textbook. Finally, please submit your work to the Lesson 2: Exercise 3 Drop Box to retrieve the Excel solution. The Excel solution is a locked file and can only be accessed once you have submitted your work to the Lesson 2: Exercise 3 Drop Box. Note: The cells which are highlighted yellow within the Excel worksheet are input data.
Review your answers in comparison to the solution. If you have wrong answers to the question, you should revisit the forward contracts concepts presented. And, if you still have difficulties understanding the material and why you made mistakes, please contact me.
Copyright 2002, CFA Institute. Reproduced and republished from Analysis of Derivatives for the CFA Program by Don M. Chance, with permission from CFA Institute. All rights reserved.